CFM Cardiology Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which ECG change is typical of pericardial effusion or tamponade?
• Which P-wave appearance is associated with atrial flutter?
• Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is best described by which mechanism?
• Which factor is used to determine hemodynamic stability in tachyarrhythmias?
• In stable atrial flutter, what is the initial IV dose of diltiazem for rate control?
• Preserved EF in diastolic heart failure is due to what?
• Right ventricle is sensitive to which type of physiological changes?
• From which structure does the right coronary artery originate?
• Which Sgarbossa criterion indicates posterior wall MI?
• What causes myocytes to squeeze?
• In myocardial ischemia progression, which sequence is correct?
• In hypothermia, which rhythm disturbance may be observed?
• What is the starting dose of epinephrine in cardiogenic shock?
• Which of the following best describes AVNRT (AV nodal reentrant tachycardia) characteristics?
• What describes valve stenosis?
• Left-sided heart failure backward failure signs include which?
• Which myocardial membrane stabilizing therapy is used in hyperkalemia?
• If both 300 mg and 150 mg amiodarone were given during arrest, which post-ROSC regimen is appropriate?
• Which of the following is included in the initial management of a stable SVT?
• What describes valve regurgitation?
• Bifascicular block with unexplained syncope: which pattern is associated?
• What is a fusion beat?
• All narrow complex rhythms can become wide complex in the presence of what conduction abnormality?
• What is a typical speed range for a VAD?
• Which direction does the aVL angle correspond to?
• What is considered the most important part when interpreting a 12-lead ECG?
• Premature junctional contraction (PJC) usually produces what kind of QRS complex?
• LCX perfuses which area of the heart?
• Left ventricle is sensitive to which type of changes?
• In atrial flutter, what is the typical atrial rate?
• Spodick's sign on ECG is described as what?
• Which intervention is used to suppress arrhythmia and obtain a 12-lead during post-ROSC care?
• What rate range is typical for sinus tachycardia?
• Which node typically fires at a rate of 40-60 beats per minute when the SA node is not functioning?
• Which valve guards entrance to the pulmonary artery?
• How do multifocal PVCs differ from unifocal PVCs?
• Which statement is true about limb leads arrangement?
• What is the role of potassium as an electrolyte in cardiac cells?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a risk factor for aortic dissection?
• Which statement best describes sinus arrhythmia?
• R/S ratio greater than 1 in which leads is a posterior MI criterion?
• Which direction does the II angle correspond to?
• Which leads represent the anterior wall of the heart?
• In cardiac arrest, when do advanced airway management become a higher priority?
• aVR looks at which part of the heart?
• Which statement best describes how the incidence of sinus arrhythmia changes with age?
• Suspected inflow cannula malposition in a VAD patient: which action is advised?
• What structure interconnects cardiomyocytes?
• The proximal left anterior coronary artery (LAC) originates from which structure?
• In inferior STEMI with reciprocal changes, which lead pair shows the strongest reciprocal change?
• The aVR axis angle is directed which way?
• AVNRT originates from which part of the conduction system?
• What is the role of calcium as an electrolyte?
• Which axis category corresponds to a 180º to -90º range?
• Which axis category corresponds to a 0º to 90º range?
• In cardiotoxic overdose, which finding is most associated with calcium toxicity?
• In post-ROSC care, which parameter should be checked to guide glucose management?
• In the AHA criteria for STEMI, what ST elevation threshold defines STEMI in males under 40?
• Which ECG leads are considered left-sided?
• Which structure slows conduction of the electrical impulse as it passes from the atria to the ventricles?
• Which symptoms are associated with forward failure in right-sided heart failure?
• Which statement best describes Cardiomyopathy?
• Which of the following is a Sgarbossa criterion?
• Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle is
• Which pattern is classically associated with acute pulmonary embolism?
• Sinus pause vs sinus arrest: which statement correctly differentiates them?
• The LAD perfuses which of the following areas?
• Purkinje fibers coordinate ventricular contraction by distributing impulses through the ventricular myocardium. Which option best describes their role?
• What is the role of sodium as an electrolyte in cardiomyocytes?
• Which component of the nervous system increases heart rate by releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine?
• Which statement correctly differentiates capture beat from fusion beat?
• Which Brugada pattern is diagnostic for Brugada syndrome (Type 1)?
• Which class of medication is used to suppress seizure activity after ROSC?
• Which ECG finding increases likelihood of ventricular tachycardia over SVT with aberrancy?
• Echocardiogram uses what to visualize the heart?
• In PVCs, what type of compensatory pause is expected?
• Which statement describes the directional movement of key ions across the cardiomyocyte membrane?
• Systolic heart failure is primarily what type of problem?
• Pacemaker cells have the characteristic called which enables spontaneous generation of impulses?
• What ECG changes are observed in beta blocker or calcium channel blocker toxicity?
• In stable atrial flutter, what is the second IV dose of diltiazem if the initial dose is not effective?
• Stable Angina is best described as chest pain due to reduced blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart that is typically relieved by rest or nitrates.
• In the described cardiac action potential sequence, what happens first?
• Which structure in cardiac myocytes facilitates rapid depolarization?
• What are the normal QTc cutoffs for males and females?
• After a pulse/rhythm check, and resuming compressions, you should assume which of the following about the rhythm?
• Which parameter is used to assess perfusion in a patient with a VAD?
• Which LAD branch supplies the low lateral wall?
• During conduction from the right atrium to the left atrium, which pathway provides transmission and causes a brief delay before entering the left atrium?
• Wellens Type B pattern is associated with approximately what sensitivity for predicting critical LAD stenosis?
• Which of the following is a sign of aortic dissection?
• In most individuals, which artery gives rise to the posterior descending artery?
• Which is a cause of systolic heart failure?
• Mean Arterial Pressure equation
• LAD bifurcates into which branch that supplies the high lateral wall?
• For a VAD patient with suspected pericardial tamponade, which action is indicated?
• Which finding is characteristic of hypothermia on ECG?
• If a 300 mg dose of amiodarone is given during arrest, what is the recommended post-ROSC infusion regimen?
• Which sign is most consistent with abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture?
• In ARVD, which clinical feature is most typical?
• In a patient with a bundle branch block, how do cardiac cells coordinate conduction?
• Which Brugada ECG pattern corresponds to saddleback morphology in V1-V3?
• In some individuals, LCX perfuses the posterior wall of the left ventricle in about what percent?
• What is the primary physiologic effect of epinephrine in cardiac arrest?
• Which leads correspond to the low lateral region?
• Stable VT with pulses: which treatment is appropriate?
• The proximal LAD originates from which artery?
• Which sign is associated with aortic dissection?
• The only normal conductive pathway that carries impulses from the atria to the ventricles is which structure?
• Unstable VT with pulses: most appropriate action?
• What is the primary goal for inotrope therapy in cardiogenic shock?
• What is the dosing interval for epinephrine 1:10,000 in cardiac arrest?
• Which list best reflects the underlying conditions that contribute to congestive heart failure?
• Which leads comprise the inferior region?
• Which statement correctly describes NSTEMI or STEMI?
• NSTEMI or STEMI are conditions in which reduced oxygen supply causes damage to heart tissue with release of cardiac enzymes.
• What is the recommended immediate action after delivering a shock in a shockable arrest?
• Which features characterize cardiac myocytes?
• In VAD-associated right ventricular failure, which measure is recommended to optimize preload?
• In diastolic heart failure, what is a primary characteristic?
• Which finding supports STEMI over LV aneurysm?
• Which AVRT pathway is associated with a wide, dangerous QRS complex?
• Which statement is a STEMI equivalent for systemic hypoperfusion?
• Which structure is described as the bridge between the atria and ventricles, encapsulated within fibers along the septum toward the apex?
• The bundle of His is described as the bridge between the atria and ventricles, running through the atrioventricular septum toward the apex. Which structure is this?
• If a cardiotoxic overdose is suspected to be due to a beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker, what additional treatment is recommended?
• Blockage of the proximal LAD has what prognosis?
• What is a functional consequence of cardiomyocyte interconnections via gap junctions?
• Which statement defines incomplete BBB?
• If a premature junctional contraction occurs before the QRS complex, what happens to the PR interval?
• Which finding is a classic sign of abdominal aortic aneurysm?
• What is the resting membrane potential of cardiac cells?
• Which rhythm is described as irregularly irregular with fibrillating baseline P waves?
• Which ECG angle corresponds to Up, Left?
• In VAD-related arrhythmia, what is the recommended approach?
• Which leads comprise the septal region in the standard 12-lead ECG?
• What is cardiac output?
• Which direction does the III angle correspond to?
• What is recommended regarding chest recoil during high-quality CPR?
• In atrial flutter, what is the characteristic atrial rate and P-wave appearance?
• In the later phase of the action potential, which event leads toward the -90 mV resting potential?
• Which leads would be used to assess the anterior wall of the heart?
• Brugada syndrome is most prevalent in which population?
• Which list includes the three best strategies to prevent coronary thrombus and MI?
• Atrioventricular valves function
• Which direction does the aVF angle correspond to?
• Which rhythm pattern may be seen with severe hyperkalemia?
• Which tachyarrhythmia is classically caused by an accessory pathway such as WPW?
• What constitutes STEMI by typical guidelines?
• The left circumflex artery (LCX) originates from which artery?
• Which statement best describes the dose-dependent effects of inotropes in cardiogenic shock?
• What describes valve prolapse?
• Which ECG change is characteristic of acute pericarditis?
• What is a ventricular assist device (VAD)?
• Ectopic impulses from subsidiary pacemakers are normally suppressed by what?
• Which signs indicate backward failure in right-sided heart failure?
• Which of the following best describes a complete heart block (third-degree AV block)?
• In inferior STEMI with right ventricular involvement, which action is recommended regarding nitroglycerin?
• Which AVRT mechanism is associated with a narrow QRS complex?
• Which ECG angle corresponds to Left, Horizontal?
• Which ECG finding supports ARVD apart from epsilon waves?
• Which conduction abnormality may be seen with severe hyperkalemia?
• Which finding may indicate rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
• The sodium–potassium pump in cardiac cells does which of the following?
• Which lead is described as looking at the base of the heart?
• Patients with TCA overdoses usually demonstrate sinus tachycardia secondary to which receptor blockade?
• Which population is at increased risk for aortic dissection?
• Which clinical criterion increases the likelihood that a tachycardia is VT rather than SVT with aberrancy?
• Brugada sign is defined as
• Reciprocal changes in aVL are more consistent with STEMI than with pericarditis.
• Pulse checks are required in which situations?
• Wellens syndrome requires seeing a pattern in which leads?
• What best describes the pattern of complete heart block?
• Which ventricle is more sensitive to volume changes?
• If amiodarone was not given during arrest, what is the post-ROSC dosing?
• The LAD perfuses which region?
• Atrioventricular valves include which pair?
• Which ECG feature is associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• What is the normal ejection fraction range?
• In the AHA criteria for STEMI, what ST elevation threshold defines STEMI in males over 40?
• Preserved ejection fraction is most consistent with which statement?
• Which statement about VT with wide QRS is true?
• Premature atrial contraction (PAC) typically has which P-wave characteristic?
• Unstable atrial flutter: what is the recommended immediate procedure?
• Pumping efficiency is most accurately measured by which parameter?
• Which finding best favors pericarditis over STEMI?
• In acute pulmonary embolism, which precordial pattern indicates right ventricular strain?
• Which finding is most characteristic of thoracic dissection presenting as a STEMI equivalent?
• Which valve guards entrance to the aorta?
• In cardiac arrest, intubation must be attempted in which scenario?
• Which ECG angle corresponds to Down, Left?
• Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) is defined as
• Which is a LVH non-voltage criterion?
• Left-sided heart failure forward failure signs include which of the following?
• Which action is the correct initial fluid management step in hypotensive cardiogenic shock?
• Which statement is true about right ventricular myocardial infarction (RVMI)?
• Which statement about amiodarone in shockable arrest is true?
• Unstable Angina is distinguished by chest pain that is not relieved by rest or nitrates.
• Which feature best differentiates second-degree AV block Type II from Type I?
• During VAD assessment, which action indicates the device is functioning?
• Semilunar valves include which valves?
• Valvular Heart Disease is best defined as:
• Which lead set would best view the inferior wall?
• During the action potential, which event occurs when the membrane potential reaches about +20 mV?
• In AVRT with an accessory pathway, which is true about the PR interval?
• What rate defines sinus bradycardia?
• Which rhythm is most likely to present with a regular, wide QRS and absent P waves?
• RCA perfuses the inferior wall of the left ventricle via which branch?
• Which leads correspond to the high lateral region?
• Which of the following is a component of high-quality CPR?
• De Winter's T waves feature ultimate description?
• Which structures are the insulated, rapidly conducting pathways through the ventricles?
• Which leads are considered high lateral leads?
• Which of the following best describes second-degree AV block Type II?
• Which of the following is a criterion for left bundle branch block?
• Which statement is true about Wellens syndrome?
• Which is NOT a typical cause of diastolic heart failure?
• Which criterion is commonly used to diagnose LVH on ECG?
• Which P-wave finding is typical of premature junctional contractions?
• Is new onset LBBB considered a STEMI equivalent?
• Which statement describes valvular prolapse?
• In VAD-associated hypovolemia, which intervention is indicated?
• Which is an LVH voltage criterion?
• What is the recommended intervention for unstable SVT?
• Which sequence best describes the progression of ECG changes in myocardial infarction?
• Which ECG finding is characteristic of sodium channel blockade overdose?
• De Winter's T waves are described by which feature?
• Which of the following is NOT typically associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm?
• Non-sustained ventricular tachycardia is defined as how many ectopic beats in a row?
• Which of the following is an LVH LV strain criterion?
• Which direction does the I angle correspond to?
• Which of the following is a criterion for right bundle branch block?
• What is the most specific ECG finding that favors ventricular tachycardia over SVT with aberrant conduction?
• Which axis category corresponds to a -30º to 0º range?
• Which of the following is a sign of posterior myocardial infarction on the ECG?
• RSR' complexes with taller left rabbit ear are described as which sign?
• Wellens Type A pattern is best described as which of the following?
• P pulmonale is associated with enlargement of which heart chamber?
• Which structure acts as the primary pacemaker of the heart, typically generating a heart rate of 60-100 beats per minute?
• Which pair correctly matches a region with its leads?
• Which of the following best describes second-degree AV block Type I (Wenckebach)?
• Apical variant hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is associated with which ECG finding?
• Amiodarone in cardiac arrest: initial dose is which of the following?
• Which ECG leads are associated with the right side?
• Why does adrenal insufficiency cause hyperkalemia?
• What is a typical power setting range for a VAD?
• LCX can supply the SA node in some individuals. What percentage is commonly cited?
• In stable atrial fibrillation with a heart rate greater than 150 bpm, which therapy sequence is used?
• In the classic progression of ECG changes after myocardial infarction, which event follows ST elevation?
• Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) are best described by which statement?
• The right coronary artery perfuses the AV node in approximately what percentage?
• Unstable atrial fibrillation: what synchronized cardioversion energy is recommended as initial therapy?
• AVRT due to an accessory pathway (WPW) typically presents with which features?
• Which axis category corresponds to a -90º to -30º range?
• Which ECG finding is commonly seen in acute pulmonary embolism?
• Early ischemia on ECG is characterized by T wave inversion and ST depression indicating involvement of which myocardial layer?
• What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on heart rate?
• Which patient population is at high risk for hyperkalemia?
• Which clinical feature suggests pericarditis?
• Which sign is typically present in abdominal aortic aneurysm?
• Which leads are used to evaluate Brugada sign?
• Pacemaker cells have the characteristic called which enables spontaneous generation of action potentials?
• Which of the following describes the goals of nitroglycerin administration in ischemic heart disease?
• What is the starting dose of norepinephrine in cardiogenic shock?
• Which VT variant typically has a wide QRS complex with irregular rhythm and a rate often exceeding 220 bpm?
• Which is a cause of diastolic heart failure?
• What head position is recommended after ROSC?
• Rhythms that originate above the ventricles are collectively known as what?
• Occlusion of which artery most commonly causes ischemia in the lateral wall of the left ventricle?
• After ROSC, what are the target EtCO2 and SpO2 values?
• Which ECG finding is consistent with hyperkalemia?
• Posterior myocardial infarction is seen in the setting of which type of MI?
• In the AHA criteria for STEMI, what ST elevation threshold defines STEMI in females?
• Which ECG angle corresponds to Down, Right?
• Josephson sign is defined as
• Which statement defines a pathological Q wave characteristic seen in myocardial infarction?
• In the setting of a VAD with high pump speed, what is a recommended initial step?
• Cardiac output is determined by 3 key factors...
• Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia typically presents with which combination of QRS width and rhythm?
• What does drug-eluting mean for a coronary stent?
• Which finding is an STEMI equivalent for systemic hypoperfusion?
• Which scenario is most consistent with LV aneurysm morphology after STEMI?
• In post-ROSC care, what is the target mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
• Frequent PVCs are defined as more than how many per minute?
• Which classic ECG sign is associated with pulmonary embolism and is relatively specific though not highly sensitive?
• Ischemic cardiomyopathy is not considered a standard type of cardiomyopathy. Which option is NOT a classic type?
• After return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), which SpO2 target is recommended?
• P mitrale indicates enlargement of which chamber?
• Which finding best distinguishes left ventricular aneurysm on ECG from acute STEMI?
• Posterior and anterior fascicles collectively refer to which component of the conduction system?
• What is the recommended depth of chest compressions during high-quality CPR?
• Immediately after ROSC, what is the first action to take?
• Limb leads view the heart from which perspective?
• Which description best fits benign early repolarization (BER) on ECG?
• When evaluating LVH on an ECG, which approach helps confirm LVH is present?
• What is a capture beat?
• How are ion channels described in the material?
• Hypoxia is listed as a reversible cause of cardiac arrest. Which option reflects this?
• Pulsatility Index range for a VAD?
• Which finding best reflects backward failure in right-sided heart failure?
• In cardiac tamponade, what is the mechanism leading to reduced preload?
• The Bundle of His is located in the heart conduction system as a bridge between the atria and ventricles, following the interventricular septum toward the apex. Where is it located?
• In a patient with LBBB, a negative Sgarbossa criterion suggests what?
• During the action potential, which event moves the membrane potential to about +5 mV?
• Which of the following best describes the characteristics of a first-degree AV block?
• Which ECG finding is characteristic of ARVD?
• Torsades de Pointes is best described by which combination of rate, QRS width, and rhythm?
• The Tricuspid valve is located between which chambers?
• Defibrillation should be withheld in a shockable arrest when body temperature is below which threshold?
• Lidocaine dosing in arrhythmia management: the initial dose is which amount?
• Which axis category corresponds to a 90º to 180º range?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a mechanism contributing to tachycardia?
• Coronary vasospasm is most commonly associated with which risk factor?
• Which ECG leads denote the normal zone of transition?
• Which ECG changes are associated with elevated intracranial pressure?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
• Wellens Type B pattern is best described as which electrocardiographic finding?
• Cardiac Output = ______ x ________
• In tension pneumothorax, which statement best describes the mechanism leading to reduced preload?
• Which ECG angle corresponds to Straight Down?
• Which statement best defines heart failure?
• Which chest pain condition is typically relieved by rest and nitroglycerin?
• Which of the following can contribute to heart failure?
• Sinus arrhythmia is most commonly seen in which group?
• Which rhythm matches torsades de Pointes?
• What percentage of SA node perfusion is supplied by the RCA?
• Which substance is a primary cardiac biomarker used to diagnose myocardial injury?
• Regarding STEMI ECG criteria for V2 and V3, evaluating ST elevation may involve different thresholds. This statement is:
• In the management of cardiotoxicity presenting with QRS widening, what is the initial treatment?
• In cardiogenic shock, what is the recommended initial respiratory intervention?